CS0-002 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Updated

Posted by

These CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exams provide you with realistic test questions and interactive, question-level feedback.

1 = 295 Q&A and 7 full-length practice exams of 75 unique questions, We have carefully hand-crafted each question to put you to the test and prepare you to pass the exam with confidence.

All questions are based on the Exam Objectives for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) exam for all 5 domains of the exam, so you can take and pass the actual CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam with confidence!

Threat and Vulnerability Management (22%)
Software and Systems Security (18%)
Security Operations and Monitoring (25%)
Incident Response (25%)
Compliance and Assessment (13%)

After taking this CySA+ (CS0-002) Practice Exam course, you won’t be hoping you are ready, you will know you are ready to sit for and pass the exam.

After practicing these tests and scoring an 90% or higher on them, you should be ready to PASS on the first attempt and avoid costly re-schedule fees, saving you time and money.

You will receive your total final score, a breakdown of how you did in each of the five domains, and a detailed explanation for every question in our database, telling you exactly why each option was correct or wrong. This way, you can pinpoint the areas in CySA+ which you need to improve and study further.

This course stays current and up-to-date with the latest release of the CompTIA CySA+ exam (CS0-002), and also provides a 30-day money-back guarantee if you are not satisfied with the quality of this course for any reason!

What you’ll learn
Take and pass the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) certification exam

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
You should have a basic understanding of networks and network security
You should have read a book, watched a video series, or otherwise started studying for the CySA+ exam

Who this course is for:
Students preparing for the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-002) Certification Exam

This Course Included

Threat and Vulnerability Management
Utilize and apply proactive threat intelligence to support organizational security and perform vulnerability management activities

Security Operations and Monitoring
Analyze data as part of continuous security monitoring activities and implement configuration changes to existing controls to improve security

Software and Systems Security
Apply security solutions for infrastructure management and explain software & hardware assurance best practices

Incident Response
Apply the appropriate incident response procedure, analyze potential indicators of compromise, and utilize basic digital forensics techniques

Compliance and Assessment
Apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigation and understand the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls

Jobs that use CompTIA CySA+

Security analyst
-Tier II SOC analyst
-Security monitoring

Threat intelligence analyst
Security engineer

Application security analyst
Incident response or handler

Compliance analyst
Threat hunter

Examkingdom CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Exam Brain dump pdf, Certkingdom CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Brain Dumps PDF

MCTS Training, MCITP Trainnig

Best CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification, CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Brain Dumps Training at certkingdom.com

Question 1:
Which of the following would be used to prevent a firmware downgrade?

A. A. TPM
B. B. HSM
C. C. SED
D. D. Efuse

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-4.2: eFUSE is an Intel-designed mechanism to allow software instructions to blow a transistor in the hardware chip. One use of this is to prevent firmware downgrades, implemented on some game consoles
and smartphones. Each time the firmware is upgraded, the updater blows an eFUSE. When there is a firmware update, the updater checks that the number of blown eFUSEs is not less than the firmware version
number. A self-encrypting drive (SED) uses cryptographic operations performed by the drive controller to encrypt a storage device’s contents. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification information. The TPM is implemented either as part of the chipset or as an embedded
function of the CPU. A hardware security module (HSM) is an appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys. An HSM solution may be less susceptible to tampering and insider threats than
software-based storage.

Question 2
After 9 months of C++ programming, the team at Whammiedyne systems has released their new software application. Within just 2 weeks of release, though, the security team discovered multiple
serious vulnerabilities in the application that must be corrected. To retrofit the source code to include the required security controls will take 2 months of labor and will cost $100,000. Which
development framework should Whammiedyne use in the future to prevent this situation from occurring in other projects?

A. A. Agile Model
B. B. DevOps
C. C. Waterfall Model
D. D. DevSecOps

Correct Answer: D

Explanation
OBJ-3.4: DevSecOps is a combination of software development, security operations, and systems operations and refers to the practice of integrating each discipline with the others. DevSecOps approaches
are generally better postured to prevent problems like this because security is built-in during the development instead of retrofitting the program afterward. The DevOps development model incorporates
IT staff but does not include security personnel. The agile software development model focuses on iterative and incremental development to account for evolving requirements and expectations. The waterfall
software development model cascades the phases of the SDLC so that each phase will start only when all of the tasks identified in the previous phase are complete. A team of developers can make secure software using either the waterfall or agile model. Therefore, they are not the right answers to solve this issue.

Question 3:
Which of the following secure coding best practices ensures a character like < is translated into the &lt string when writing to an HTML page?

A. A. Output encoding
B. B. Error handling
C. C. Session management
D. D. Input validation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Output encoding involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example, translating the < character into the &lt;
string when writing to an HTML page. Input validation is performed to ensure only properly formed data is entering the workflow in an information system, preventing malformed data from persisting in the database and triggering the malfunction of various downstream components. Improper error handling can introduce various security problems where detailed internal error messages such as stack traces, database dumps, and error codes are displayed to an attacker. The session management implementation defines the exchange mechanism that will be used between the user and the web application to share and continuously exchange the session ID.

Question 4
Which of the following tools is useful for capturing Windows memory data for forensic analysis?

A. A. dd
B. B. Memdump
C. C. Wireshark
D. D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B

Explanation
OBJ-4.4: The Memdump, Volatility framework, DumpIt, and EnCase are examples of Windows memory capture tools for forensic use. The dd tool is used to conduct forensic disk images. Wireshark is used for
packet capture and analysis. Nessus is a commonly used vulnerability scanner.

Question 5
Hilda needs a cost-effective backup solution that would allow for the restoration of data within a 24 hour RPO. The disaster recovery plan requires that backups occur during a specific timeframe each
week, and then the backups should be transported to an off-site facility for storage. What strategy should Hilda choose to BEST meet these requirements?

A. A. Create a daily incremental backup to tape
B. B. Create disk-to-disk snapshots of the server every hour
C. C. Conduct full backups daily to tape
D. D. Configure replication of the data to a set of servers located at a hot site


Correct Answer: A

Explanation
OBJ-5.2: Since the RPO must be within 24 hours, daily or hourly backups must be conducted. Since the requirement is for backups to be conducted at a specific time each week, hourly snapshots would not meet this requirement and are not easily transported since they are being conducted as a disk-to-disk backup. Replication to a hot site environment also doesn’t allow for transportation of the data to an off-site facility for storage, and replication would continuously occur throughout the day. Therefore, a daily incremental backup should be conducted since it will require the least amount of time to conduct. The tapes could be easily transported for storage and restored incrementally from tape since the last full backup was conducted.

Click to rate this post!
[Total: 0 Average: 0]